Answer: No, this is false
Step-by-step explanation:
Difference of [tex]\frac{1}{5}[/tex] and [tex]\frac{1}{10}[/tex],
[tex]\frac{1}{5}[/tex] - [tex]\frac{1}{10}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{2}{10}[/tex] - [tex]\frac{1}{10}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{10}[/tex]
[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] is equal to [tex]\frac{5}{10}[/tex]. Since 1 is closer to 0 than it is to 5, the answer is no, this is false.
